You assert that the baptism means "to pass the sins." Is there any biblical basis for that?
Thanks for your question.
Jesus said, "Permit it to be so now, for thus it is fitting for
us to fulfill all righteousness" (Matthew 3:15). Here, "all righteousness"
in ancient Greek is 'dikaiosune,' which means the fairest
state. It means Jesus saved all humankind in the most proper manner.
Here, we need to think what Jesus should do in order to offer Him
as a sin-offering according to the sacrificial system in the Law.
He did not come to destroy the Law, but to fulfill the Law. He said
in Matthew 5:17 like this. "Do not think that I came to destroy
the Law or the Prophets. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill."
Therefore, it was indispensable for Jesus to receive baptism from John the Baptist in the form of the laying on of hands and take all the sins of the world on Him just as the High Priest Aaron laid his hands on the head of a goat and passed all the yearly sins of the Israelites on the Day of Atonement. It was the perpetual covenant (Leviticus 16:34).
In order to keep the perpetual covenant of the Father, Jesus, the Son, was baptized by John the Baptist, who is a descendant of Aaron the High Priest and the greatest man of the world (Luke 1:5, Matthew 11:11). John the Baptist had to pass all the sins of the world to Jesus by laying his hands on the head of Jesus because he was the earthly high priest as the representative of all humankind.
That's why John 1:6-8 states like this. "There was a man sent
from God, whose name was John. This man came for a witness, to bear
witness of the Light, that all through him might believe. He was
not that Light, but was sent to bear witness of that Light."
Isaiah 53:6 also states, "The Lord has laid on Him the iniquity
of us all." That's why God sent John the Baptist, His messenger,
six months prior to Jesus. John the Baptist said, "Behold! The lamb
of God who takes the sin of the world," (John 1:29) the very next
day he baptized Jesus.
In the Old Testament, a sacrifice without blemish and the laying on of hands and slaying it to take it's blood are needed to atone sinners. Therefore it was the most proper for Jesus, who was holy and without sin as the Son of God, to receive baptism in the form of the laying on of hands from John the Baptist and to be crucified in order to fulfill all righteousness according to the covenant of God.
The Scriptures were all written by the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, so we cannot understand them only with our thoughts of flesh. So we must find the hidden meaning, which is spiritual meaning, by the illumination of the Holy Spirit. So Paul said, "the letter kills, but the Spirit gives life" (2 Corinthians 3:6). He means that we should not believe according to the letter, but understand the spiritual meaning hidden behind the letters.
And Isaiah 34:16 states, "Search from the book of the Lord, and
read: Not one of these shall fail; Not one shall lack her mate.
For My mouth has commanded it, and His Spirit has gathered them."
God did not said like this: "Jesus received all the sins of the world through His baptism." However, He said the same truth through all the Scriptures and hided it to the blind who does not have the Holy Spirit within them. When we say, "Mama," we mean that she gave birth to me and has brought me up until now. The word "mama" has many hidden meaning even though it is just a word. Like that, "all righteousness" has spiritual meaning that Jesus bore all sins in the most proper and lawful way according to the law of God. We have to understand this hidden spiritual meaning.
If people say that He took all sins on the Cross, is there any verse that literally says like that? I hope this answer will be helpful to you.